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Does Jesus merely act out the Father's will?

Submitted: 3/3/2008
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Question: Applying your analogy on Christ. Once Jesus said, 'If you see me, you have seen the Father' and yet John said, 'No man has seen God at anytime.' How are we to reconcile this seeming contradiction? The answer is found in the prophecy of Isaiah 11, 'And the spirit of the LORD shall rest upon him, the spirit of wisdom and understanding, the spirit of counsel and might, the spirit of knowledge and of the fear of the LORD' where the BRANCH is to have the Spirit of the Lord, and John 3:34, 'For he whom God hath sent speaketh the words of God: for God giveth not the Spirit by measure unto him' (Luke 1:17). For He will speak the words of God. So we see that when Jesus said that You have seen the Father, He meant that Jesus was operating in 'the spirit and power of God.' This tells us that the God in flesh does not necessarily mean the God himself, but rather that Jesus was sent as the image of the invisible God who operates in Spirit and power of God. Does this make sense?

Answer: No, this does not make sense. According to your explanation, Jesus Christ was nothing more than a specially anointed man. This is the doctrine of Adoptionism. But according to the Word of God, the Son was far more than a specially anointed man. He was that and more. He was God Himself in the flesh. We believe that you are injecting too much human reasoning into your doctrine rather than allowing the Spirit to guide you into all truth. You seem to have reached a conclusion and are now desperately trying to proove it. Why not allow the Lord to lead you into the correct conclusions.