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Womens clothing and the law?

Submitted: 3/8/2006
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Question: My question is: Since we are under grace and no longer under the law, then why do we go back to the law and take a scripture, in this case the one about women wearing things pertaining to a men and vice verse, and use it in the age of grace? If we are using a part of the law, then why don't we do the whole law?

Answer: You are incorrect when you say that we are now under grace and not the law. The Bible says, 'For the law was given through Moses, but grace and truth came through Jesus Christ' (John 1:17). Notice that it was not grace alone that superceded the law; it was grace AND truth. There are many elements of truth that were spelled out within the framework of the law, and the verse you mentioned is an example of this. Deuteronomy 22:5 lays out the principle of separation between the sexes and that God considers it an abomination when His people destroy that distinction by the way they dress. This is much more than law; it is truth.

Please be careful that you do not find yourself guilty of turning 'the grace of our God into lewdness' (Jude 4). The word 'lewdness' can mean having license to do whatever you please (licentiousness). When the Bible speaks of the law, it is talking about the Jewish ceremonial law (Sabbath-keeping, Passover, circumcision, etc.). The entire Old Testament did not become null and void simply because Jesus came. In fact, Jesus Himself said, 'Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them' (Matthew 5:17).