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Why did Jesus respond this way in Luke 18:19?

Submitted: 6/30/2010
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Question: In this passage, the Lord responds to a ruler's question on how to inherit eternal life. In response to the rulers use of the phrase 'Good Master' Jesus replies by saying, 'Why callest thou me good? None is good but God?' My question is, why does the Lord respond in this manner?

Answer: Jesus may have been indirectly asking this man, 'Since you know that only God is truly good in the purest sense, are you saying that you believe that I am God?' Or He may have been suggesting to the man that he could never hope to inherit eternal life by striving to become good. Only God is truly and completely good. The best he can do is keep the commandments. In other word, he can be good by doing all the good that is in his power to do.

Others may be able to offer alternative explanations.